Changing data owners during SDE geodatabase sync

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09-16-2016 07:31 AM
NickAlexandrou1
New Contributor III

I recently was in discussion with the GIS Specialist at a different county organization. They have two geodatabases that have a 1 way sync from the EDITdb (for departments to perform maintenance and edits) to ReadOnly db (for use with publishing web services)

He said that when the data is in the EDITdb, it is all owned by the database admin account named GIS.

When they run their nightly sync tool from the EDITdb to the READONLYdb, they are changing the data owner. In the READONLYdb they have set up a handful of different accounts in SQL that have data creator privileges for different departments (DOT, Environmental, ParksAndRec, etc).

When the sync tool runs, the data goes from being owned by admin GIS, to being owned by the various departments in the READONLY. So data syncs from being EDIT.GIS.Lakes to READONLY.Environmental.Lakes. Or EDIT.GIS.Parcels to READONLY.Planning.Parcels ... etc

I'm curious how this was done as it makes for a very nice organizational pattern in the READONLYdb with everything being separated by data owner (SDE.DOT or SDE.ParksandRec or SDE.Planning, etc).

Anybody know how data owners can change and the sync tool can still run without conflicts? I've only run syncs where the data owners remained the same. I don't even know where to begin with changing owners.

Any help is appreciated!

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George_Thompson
Esri Frequent Contributor

I would say that it is done during the replica creation. If you copy the data over to the child geodatabase and then register as existing data, that should allow you to do that. Also think of it this way, if you went from a SQL Server to Oracle/PostgreSQL  geodatabase the process would be similar.

Replicas created with the option to register with existing data—ArcGIS Help | ArcGIS for Desktop 

The way that items in the replica are tracking is via the GLOBALID, which is why it is required to have int he source data.

--- George T.

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3 Replies
George_Thompson
Esri Frequent Contributor

I would say that it is done during the replica creation. If you copy the data over to the child geodatabase and then register as existing data, that should allow you to do that. Also think of it this way, if you went from a SQL Server to Oracle/PostgreSQL  geodatabase the process would be similar.

Replicas created with the option to register with existing data—ArcGIS Help | ArcGIS for Desktop 

The way that items in the replica are tracking is via the GLOBALID, which is why it is required to have int he source data.

--- George T.
NickAlexandrou1
New Contributor III

That makes sense. Just make sure when copying data over and registering it, that I am connected to the READONLYdb as the new data owner, right? That's where the switch would occur, but a sync wouldn't care about owner, it's reading GlobalID's. That makes sense. Pretty labor intensive process to copy over data by department individually, or even with a partial data dump... but would be worth it in the end. 

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George_Thompson
Esri Frequent Contributor

That is correct on the new data owner and the sync not caring about the owner.

Make sure all the data in the parent is ready to be "replicated" before you copy over.

Mark the answer as correct, if you think it is

Glad to help!

--- George T.
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